ALL FORMULAS BY MODULE
Duplicates are intentional to show frequency of formulas across practice questions vs mocks.
Asset Allocation
1. CME I
-
Taylor rule (optimal short-term real rate form used in source):
$$R_{\text{optimal, real}} = R_{\text{neutral}} + 0.5 \times GDP_{g,\text{forecast}} - GDP_{g,\text{trend}} + 0.5 \times (I_{\text{forecast}} - I_{\text{target}})$$ -
Taylor rule (target nominal policy rate form):
$i^{*} = r_{\text{neutral}} + \pi_{e} + 0.5(\hat{Y}{e} - \hat{Y}{\text{trend}}) + 0.5(\pi_{e} - \pi_{\text{target}})$ -
National income identity linking net exports:
$(X - M) = $S - I$ + (T - G)$
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Taylor rule (target real short-term policy rate):
$r^* = r_{\text{neutral}} + 0.5(Y_e - Y_{\text{trend}}) + 0.5(\pi_e - \pi_{\text{target}})$
(Nominal target rate adds expected inflation; $Y_e$ is expected real GDP growth = nominal GDP growth − expected inflation.) -
Long-run real GDP growth:
$\text{Real GDP growth} = \text{growth from labor productivity} + \text{growth from labor inputs}$ -
Debt-to-GDP ratio:
$\dfrac{\text{Short-term external debt} + \text{Medium- and long-term external debt}}{\text{Nominal GDP}}$ -
Foreign-exchange reserves / short-term debt:
$\dfrac{\text{FX reserves}}{\text{Short-term external debt}}$
2. CME - II
-
Grinold–Kroner expected equity return:
$E[R_e] \approx D/P + $%\Delta E - %\Delta S$ + %\Delta P/E$
where $%\Delta E$ (nominal earnings growth) = real GDP growth + long-term inflation + corporate earnings growth premium; $%\Delta S$ = change in shares outstanding (negative for buy-backs). -
CAPM beta:
$\beta_i = \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_M)}{\operatorname{Var}(R_M)}$ -
Singer–Terhaar risk premium (fully integrated):
$RP_i = \sigma_i \times \rho_{i,M} \times (\text{Sharpe ratio of GIM})$ -
Singer–Terhaar risk premium (fully segmented):
$RP_i = \sigma_i \times (\text{Sharpe ratio})$ -
Real-estate expected return:
$E(R_{re}) = \text{CapRate} + \text{NOI growth rate} - %\Delta\text{CapRate}$
(NOI growth includes real growth + inflation; a decline in cap rate contributes positively). -
Number of distinct covariance elements in an $N$-asset VCV matrix:
$\frac{N(N-1)}{2}$
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Grinold–Kroner expected equity return:
Expected income return = Dividend yield − Change in shares outstanding
Expected nominal earnings growth return = Real earnings growth + Inflation
Expected repricing return = Rate of P/E ratio expansion
$E(R) =$ income return + nominal earnings growth return + repricing return
(Note: net share repurchases imply negative change in shares outstanding, which increases income return.) -
Commercial real estate expected return (finite horizon):
$E(R_e) =$ Current capitalization rate + NOI growth rate − %Δ Cap rate
where %Δ Cap rate = (Expected cap rate − Current cap rate) / Current cap rate
(NOI growth rate is typically real NOI growth + inflation.) -
Emerging-market vulnerability ratios:
Debt-to-GDP = (Short-term external debt + Medium- and long-term external debt) / Nominal GDP
Foreign-exchange reserves / Short-term debt -
Unsmoothed variance of real-estate returns:
$\operatorname{Var}(r) = \left[ \frac{1+\lambda}{1-\lambda} \right] \times \operatorname{Var}(R)$
(Standard deviation is the square root.) -
Singer–Terhaar equity risk premium:
$\text{Segmented RP} = \sigma \times \text{SR}{\text{segmented}}$
$\text{Fully integrated RP} = \sigma \times \rho{\text{global}} \times \text{SR}_{\text{global}}$
$\text{Weighted RP} = \text{Segmented RP} \times $1 - \text{degree of integration}$ + \text{Fully integrated RP} \times \text{degree of integration}$
3. Overview of AA
Economic net worth: $$ \text{Economic Net Worth} = \text{Total Economic Assets} - \text{Total Economic Liabilities} $$ where Total Economic Assets = Financial assets + Extended assets (e.g., human capital, PV of pledged contributions); Total Economic Liabilities = Financial liabilities + Extended liabilities (e.g., PV of future obligations, consumption needs, specific goals).
Comparative performance ratios (from allocation evaluation): $$ \text{Ratio 1} = \frac{(k - RF)}{\sigma} $$ $$ \text{Ratio 2} = \frac{(k - k_T)}{\sigma} $$ $$ \text{Ratio 3} = \frac{(k - RF)}{\beta} $$ where $k$ = expected annual return, $RF$ = risk-free return, $k_T$ = target return, $\sigma$ = annual volatility, $\beta$ = CAPM beta.
Sharpe ratio (used for ranking allocations): $$ \text{Sharpe ratio} = \frac{\text{Expected return} - \text{Risk-free rate}}{\text{Expected volatility}} $$
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
- Economic net worth = Total economic assets − Total economic liabilities
(Economic assets include financial assets + human capital/PV of earnings + residence + other extended assets; liabilities include mortgage + PV of future consumption + other extended liabilities.)
4. Principles of AA
Safety-first / probability ratio (for ranking portfolios against a required threshold return $R_L$): $$ \frac{E(R_P) - R_L}{\sigma_P} $$
Utility / objective function in mean-variance optimization (returns and variance in percent form): $$ U_m = E(R_{s,m}) - 0.005 \lambda \sigma^2(R_{s,m}) $$ $or equivalently $E(R) - 0.005\lambda\sigma^2$$
Marginal contribution to total risk $MCTR$: $$ \text{MCTR}i = \beta{i,p} \times \sigma_p $$
Absolute contribution to total risk $ACTR$: $$ \text{ACTR}_i = w_i \times \text{MCTR}_i $$
For an optimal portfolio the ratio of excess return to MCTR equals the portfolio Sharpe ratio: $$ \frac{E(R_p) - R_f}{\text{MCTR}_i} = \frac{E(R_p) - R_f}{\sigma_p} $$
Funding ratio: $$ \text{Funding ratio} = \frac{\text{Market value of assets}}{\text{Present value of liabilities}} $$
Reverse-optimization / CAPM equilibrium return: $$ E(R_i) = R_f + \beta_i \times \text{Market risk premium} $$
Inflation-adjusted annual cash-flow (growing-annuity form used for living-expenditure goals): $$ \text{Cash flow} = \text{Capital} \times \frac{k - g}{1 - \left(\frac{1+g}{1+k}\right)^n} \times \frac{1}{1+k} $$ (where $k$ = required success-rate return, $g$ = inflation)
Present-value funding of a future goal: $$ \text{PV} = \frac{\text{FV}}{(1 + k)^n} $$ (where $k$ is the minimum expected return consistent with the required success probability)
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Mean-variance utility: $U_m = E(R_m) - 0.005 \lambda \sigma_m^2$
-
Corner-portfolio weights for target return:
Target return = $w \times R_3 + $1-w$ \times R_4$
Solve for $w$. -
Leverage to achieve target return (borrowing at risk-free rate):
Target return = $w \times R_{\text{tangency}} + $1-w$ \times R_f$
$w =$ (Target − $R_f$)/( $R_{\text{tangency}}$ − $R_f$)
(When $w > 1$, the cash weight is negative = leverage.) -
Condition for mean-variance improvement from adding a new asset class:
Sharpe ratio of new asset > Sharpe ratio of current portfolio × correlation between them. -
Foundation/endowment nominal return objective (spending + inflation + costs):
$(1 + \text{spending rate})(1 + \text{expected inflation})(1 + \text{investment costs}) - 1$ -
Sharpe ratio of a corner portfolio:
$\text{Sharpe} = \dfrac{E(r) - r_f}{\sigma}$ -
Weight of the tangency (corner) portfolio when combined with the risk-free asset to achieve a target return:
$r_{\text{target}} = E(r_P) \times w + r_f \times (1-w)$
$\Rightarrow w = \dfrac{r_{\text{target}} - r_f}{E(r_P) - r_f}$ -
Resulting portfolio standard deviation $risk-free asset has $\sigma=0$$:
$\sigma_{\text{port}} = w \times \sigma_P$ -
Ratio of excess return to marginal contribution to total risk (optimality condition for risk budgeting):
$\dfrac{E(r_i) - r_f}{\text{MCTR}_i} = \text{Sharpe of tangency portfolio}$ -
Ratio of excess return to MCTR (solving for $r_f$):
$\dfrac{E(r) - r_f}{\text{MCTR}} = \text{given ratio}$
$\Rightarrow r_f = E(r) - (\text{ratio} \times \text{MCTR})$ -
Present value of a goals-based multi-period cash-flow stream (end-of-year payments):
$\text{PV} = \sum_{t=1}^{N} \dfrac{\text{PMT}}{(1 + r_{\min})^t}$
$or financial-calculator inputs: $N$, $I/Y = r_{\min}$, $\text{PMT}$, $\text{FV}=0$, solve $\text{PV}$$
5. Asset Alloc w/RW Constraints
Tactical incremental return contribution of an asset class:
$(TAA weight−Policy weight)×Period return$
After-tax rebalancing range: $$ \text{After-tax rebalancing range} = \frac{\text{Pre-tax rebalancing range}}{1 - t} $$
After-tax return on an asset (when gains are taxed at rate $t$): $$ \text{After-tax return} = \text{Pre-tax return} \times (1 - t) $$
Portfolio Construction
Overview of Equity
-
Explicit trading costs = Brokerage commissions + Transaction taxes + Exchange fees + Regulatory fees
(expressed in percent or basis points converted to percent) -
Herfindahl–Hirschman Index $HHI$ = $\sum w_i^2$
where $w_i$ are the portfolio weights (including the sum of squared weights of remaining holdings) -
Effective number of stocks = $\dfrac{1}{\text{HHI}}$
Overview of Fixed Income
-
Coupon income = $\dfrac{\text{Annual average coupon payment}}{\text{Current average bond price}}$
-
Rolldown return = $\dfrac{\text{Expected average bond price at end of horizon} - \text{Current average bond price}}{\text{Current average bond price}}$
(assumes unchanged yield curve over the strategy horizon) -
Rolling yield = Coupon income + Rolldown return
-
Expected change in price based on yield or spread view ≈ $(- \text{Modified Duration} \times \Delta y) + \left[\frac{1}{2} \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta y)^{2}\right]$
-
Leveraged portfolio return = $\dfrac{(\text{Return on invested funds} \times \text{Value of portfolio assets}) - (\text{Borrowing rate} \times \text{Value of borrowed funds})}{\text{Value of portfolio equity}}$
-
Total expected return = Rolling yield $+/-$ $E$(Change in price based on investor’s benchmark yield view) $+/-$ $E$(Change in price due to investor’s view of credit spread) $+/-$ $E$(Currency gains or losses)
-
Level of inflation protection for coupons = Percentage of portfolio in floating-coupon bonds + Percentage of portfolio in inflation-linked bonds
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Rolling yield = Coupon income + Rolldown return
Coupon income = Annual coupon payment / Current bond price
Rolldown return = (Expected price in one year assuming unchanged yield curve − Current price) / Current price -
Expected return due to change in benchmark YTM:
$(- \text{ModDur} \times \Delta \text{Yield}) + [0.5 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta \text{Yield})^2]$ -
Expected return due to change in spread:
$(- \text{ModDur} \times \Delta \text{Spread}) + [0.5 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta \text{Spread})^2]$ -
Leveraged return:
$\dfrac{r_I \times V_E + V_B - (V_B \times r_B)}{V_E}$
-
Rolling yield:
$\text{Rolling yield} = \text{Coupon income} + \text{Rolldown return}$
$\text{Coupon income} = \frac{\text{Annual coupon payment}}{\text{Current bond price}}$
$\text{Rolldown return} = \frac{P_1 - P_0}{P_0}$ (assuming unchanged yield curve) -
Expected return due to change in benchmark YTM or spread:
$(-\text{ModDur} \times \Delta\text{Yield}) + \left[ 0.5 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta\text{Yield})^2 \right]$ -
Leveraged return:
$r_L = r_1 + \frac{V_B}{V_E} (r_1 - r_B)$
Alternatives
-
Expected distribution = $[\text{Prior-year NAV} \times (1 + \text{Growth rate})] \times \text{Distribution rate}$
-
Expected NAV = $\text{Prior-year NAV} \times $1 + \text{Growth rate}$ + \text{Capital contributions} - \text{Distributions}$
-
$\text{NAV}t = [\text{NAV}{t-1} \times (1 + G)] + C_t - D_t$
where $G$ is the growth rate, $C_t$ is the capital contribution, and $D_t$ is the distributions
Private Wealth
-
After-tax distribution income (annual yield) = $B \left{ [1 + r(1 - t_x)]^T - 1 \right}$
(where $B$ is beginning portfolio value/basis, $r$ is pretax yield, $t_x$ is tax rate on distributions, $T=1$ for annual) -
Real purchasing power of fixed nominal income = $\dfrac{\text{Nominal income}}{(1 + \pi)^T}$
-
Future value interest factor adjusted for tax and inflation (capital gains with deferred tax treated as $t=0$) = $\left[ \dfrac{1 + r}{1 + \pi} \right]^T$
-
Average tax rate = $\dfrac{\text{Total tax liability}}{\text{Total taxable income}}$
-
After-tax nominal return = $r(1 - t)$
-
After-tax real return = $\dfrac{1 + r(1 - t)}{1 + \pi} - 1$
(or approximately after-tax nominal return minus inflation) -
Inflation-adjusted future value (pretax) = $\text{Notional} \times \left[ \dfrac{1 + R_P}{1 + i} \right]^T$
-
Inflation-adjusted after-tax future value = $\text{Notional} \times \left[ \dfrac{1 + R_P(1 - \text{Tax rate})}{1 + i} \right]^T$
-
Investable net worth = Liquid investments + Cash – Short-term liabilities (excludes primary residence, vehicles, business assets/liabilities, checking for day-to-day use)
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
- After-tax future value of non-dividend-paying equities (capital-gains only): $FV_{cg} = PV \bigl[(1 + r)^n $1 - t_{cg}$ + t_{cg}\bigr]$ .
- Accrual-equivalent after-tax return $R_{AE}$ solves $PV (1 + R_{AE})^n = FV$. Accrual-equivalent tax rate $T_{AE}$ solves $r(1 - T_{AE}) = R_{AE}$.
- Real after-tax required return = (Cash need / Asset base).
Nominal after-tax required return ≈ Real after-tax return + Inflation (arithmetic) or $(1 + real)(1 + inflation) - 1$ (geometric).
-
Shortfall risk ≈ Nominal pre-tax expected return − 2 × Nominal expected standard deviation. $Q68, Q96$
-
Real after-tax return of a portfolio = Nominal pre-tax return × (1 − tax rate) − Inflation. $Q68, Q96$
-
Minimum portfolio size that meets next-year net cash need at real after-tax return $r$: $\text{min Portfolio} = \text{net cash need} / r$.
Maximum donation = Current portfolio − min Portfolio.
- Accrual-equivalent after-tax annual return: $\left( \frac{\text{Ending Value}}{\text{Beginning Value}} \right)^{1/n} - 1$
-
Real after-tax portfolio return: Nominal pre-tax return $\times $1 - \text{tax rate}$ - \text{inflation}$
-
Shortfall risk: Nominal pre-tax expected return $- 2 \times$ standard deviation
-
Minimum portfolio size that meets next-year net cash need: $\text{Net cash need} / \text{real after-tax expected return}$
-
Maximum immediate donation: Current portfolio $-$ minimum portfolio
-
Worst-case (downside) return = Expected nominal total return − 2 × standard deviation
-
After-tax standard deviation = $\sigma \times (1 - TR)$ where $TR$ is the tax rate
-
Taxable-account terminal value = $BV \times [1 + r(1 - t)]^n$
-
Tax-deferred terminal value (after tax on gain) = $BV \times (1 + r)^n \times 1 - t + BV \times t$ (or equivalent net-of-tax gain + basis)
-
Maximum spending rate that preserves real portfolio value:
-
Expected nominal return that preserves real value of portfolio = (1 + spending rate) × (1 + inflation) × (1 + management fee) – 1 Multiplicative: $\text{spending} = \frac{1 + r}{(1 + i)(1 + f)} - 1$
Additive approximation: $\text{spending} \approx r - i - f$
where $r$ = expected nominal return, $i$ = inflation, $f$ = management fee -
After-tax expected return on a taxable asset = Pre-tax expected return $\times (1 - t)$
-
After-tax risk of a taxable asset = Pre-tax standard deviation $\times (1 - t)$ $Q163, Q164$
-
After-tax future value (accrual taxes):
$FV_t = \left[ 1 + R(1 - t_x) \right]^T$ -
Tax drag (as % of investment gains):
$\text{Tax drag} = \frac{FV_{\text{no tax}} - FV_{\text{tax}}}{FV_{\text{no tax}} - \text{Initial value}}$
Institutional
-
Portfolio expected return = $\sum (w_i \times r_i)$
-
Modified duration of bank equity capital after restructuring:
$D_E = \left(\dfrac{A}{E}\right) D_A - \left(\dfrac{L}{E}\right) D_L \times \left(\dfrac{\Delta y_L}{\Delta y_A}\right)$
where $A$ = assets, $E$ = equity, $L$ = liabilities, $D_A$ = modified duration of assets, $D_L$ = modified duration of liabilities, and $\Delta y_L / \Delta y_A$ is the relative yield change of liabilities to assets.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
- Modified duration of equity capital:
$D_E^* = \left( \frac{A}{E} \right) D_A^* - \left( \frac{A}{E} - 1 \right) D_L^* \left( \frac{\Delta i}{\Delta y} \right)$
where $\frac{A}{E}$ is the assets-to-equity ratio, $D_A^$ modified duration of assets, $D_L^$ modified duration of liabilities, and $\frac{\Delta i}{\Delta y}$ is the change in liability yield per unit change in asset yield.
Trading
-
Inside (market) bid–ask spread = Highest bid price − Lowest ask price
-
Effective bid–ask spread (buy order) = $2 \times \bigl(\text{Trade price} - \dfrac{\text{Ask price} + \text{Bid price}}{2}\bigr)$
or equivalently $2 \times (\text{Trade price} - \text{Midpoint of the market at order entry})$ -
Average effective spread = $\dfrac{\sum \text{Effective spreads of individual trades}}{N}$
-
Volume-weighted average execution price for a multi-level fill against the book = $\dfrac{\sum (\text{Size}_i \times \text{Price}_i)}{\text{Total shares}}$
-
Effective-spread transaction cost per share (midquote benchmark) = $\dfrac{\text{Trade price} - \text{Prevailing bid}}{2}$ (for buys)
Total transaction cost estimate = Effective-spread cost per share $\times$ Total shares traded
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Effective spread (sell order): $2 \times (\text{Midpoint of market at order entry} - \text{Trade price})$
-
VWAP transaction cost estimate: $(\text{Day VWAP} - \text{Trade VWAP}) \times \text{Shares sold}$
- Effective spread (buy order):
$2 \times \left[ \text{Trade price} - \frac{\text{Bid} + \text{Ask}}{2} \right]$
Performance
Portfolio Performance Evaluation
Brinson-Hood-Beebower $BHB$ selection effect:
$S_i = W_i \times (R_i - B_i)$
BHB allocation effect:
$A_i = $w_i - W_i$ \times B_i$
BHB interaction effect:
$I_i = $w_i - W_i$ \times (R_i - B_i)$
Brinson-Fachler allocation effect:
$A_i = $w_i - W_i$ \times (B_i - B)$
where $w_i$ = portfolio weight in sector $i$, $W_i$ = benchmark weight in sector $i$, $R_i$ = portfolio return in sector $i$, $B_i$ = benchmark return in sector $i$, $B$ = overall benchmark return.
Combined selection + interaction:
$W_i(R_i - B_i) + (w_i - W_i)(R_i - B_i)$
Sortino ratio:
$SR_D = \frac{r_p - r_T}{\sigma_D}$
$$\sigma_D$ = target semi-deviation below target return $r_T$$
Sharpe ratio:
$SR = \frac{r_p - r_f}{\sigma}$
Misfit active return (definition): difference between broad market benchmark return and manager’s normal portfolio return.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Brinson–Hood–Beebower selection effect: $W_b \times (R_p - R_b)$
-
Brinson–Fachler allocation effect: $(W_p - W_b) \times (R_b - B)$
-
Interaction effect: $(W_p - W_b) \times (R_p - R_b)$
-
Sortino ratio: $\dfrac{\text{Average fund return} - \text{Minimum acceptable return}}{\text{Target semi-standard deviation}}$
-
Implementation shortfall $IS$: Execution cost + Opportunity cost + Fees
Execution cost = $\sum s_j p_j - $\sum s_j$ p_d$
Opportunity cost = $(S - \sum s_j)(p_n - p_d)$
Fees = shares executed × commission per share -
Factor contribution to active return:
$\text{Contribution} = $\text{Portfolio sensitivity} - \text{Benchmark sensitivity}$ \times \text{Factor return}$ -
Active return:
$A = P - B$ -
Style return:
$S = B - M$ -
Excess return:
$E = P - M$
Investment Manager Selection
Investment management fee (base + sharing, subject to cap):
$\text{Fee} = \text{Base Fee} + [\text{Sharing Fee} \times (\text{Gross Active Return} - \text{Base Fee})]$
Capped at Maximum Annual Fee if exceeded.
Net active return:
$\text{Net Active Return} = \text{Gross Active Return} - \text{Billed Fee}$
where Billed Fee = Base + (active return above base × sharing %).
High-water mark adjustment: Prior losses must be recouped before sharing fee applies on subsequent gains (e.g., adjust gross return downward by prior loss amount before calculating sharing portion).
Capture ratio:
$\text{Capture Ratio} = \frac{\text{Upside Capture}}{\text{Downside Capture}}$
Modified Dietz sub-period return (with external cash flows):
$r = \frac{EMV - BMV - CF}{BMV + \sum (CF_i \times w_i)}$
where wi w_i wi is the weighting factor (proportion of period cash flow was invested). Sub-period returns are geometrically linked.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Capture ratio: $\dfrac{\text{Upside capture}}{\text{Downside capture}}$
-
Performance-based fee (sharing structure):
Base fee + (Sharing percentage × (Gross active return − Base fee))
Subject to maximum annual fee cap -
Capture ratio:
$\text{Capture ratio} = \dfrac{\text{Upside capture}}{\text{Downside capture}}$
Overview of the Global Investment Performance Standards
Modified Dietz sub-period return with external cash flow:
$$
$r = \frac{EMV - BMV - CF}{BMV + \sum (CF_i \times w_i)}$
$$
where $w_i$ is the weighting factor (proportion of the period the cash flow was in the portfolio). Sub-period returns are geometrically linked to obtain the full-period return.
Composite return (asset-weighted):
$$
$r_{comp} = \sum (w_p \times r_p)$
$$
where $w_p$ is the weight of each portfolio based on beginning assets (or beginning assets plus weighted cash flows).
Derivatives
Option Strategies
-
Collar position delta:
$$\text{Collar delta}=\Delta_{\text{stock}}+\Delta_{\text{put}}-\Delta_{\text{call}}$$ -
Synthetic long stock (put-call parity):
$$S_0=c_0-p_0+\frac{X}{(1+r)^T}$$ -
Synthetic short stock:
$$-S_0=p_0-c_0-\frac{X}{(1+r)^T}$$ -
Protective-put maximum loss:
$$\text{Max loss}=S_0-X+p_0$$ -
Protective-put breakeven:
$$\text{Breakeven}=S_0+p_0$$ -
Bull-call-spread maximum profit:
$$\text{Max profit}=(X_H-X_L)-(c_L-c_H)$$ -
Bull-call-spread breakeven:
$$\text{Breakeven}=X_L+(c_L-c_H)$$ -
Bear-put-spread net cost / maximum loss:
$$\text{Net cost}=p_H-p_L$$
Maximum loss occurs when underlying $\ge X_H$. -
Straddle / strangle cost and breakevens:
$$\text{Cost}=c+p$$
Long-straddle breakevens $=X\pm\text{cost}$
Long-strangle upper breakeven $=X_{\text{call}}+\text{cost}$ -
Covered-call effective sale price:
$$\text{Effective sale price}=X+c_0$$
Breakeven $=S_0-c_0$ -
Covered-call position delta:
$$\text{Position delta}=(1-\Delta_{\text{call}})\times\text{shares}$$ -
Variance of option gamma: highest for ATM options near expiration.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Collar delta: $\text{Collar delta} = \Delta_{\text{underlying}} + \Delta_{\text{put}} - \Delta_{\text{call}}$
-
Straddle cost (per share): ATM put premium + ATM call premium
-
Strangle cost (per share): OTM put premium + OTM call premium
Percentage increase to break even: $\frac{\text{Strangle cost}}{\text{Current share price}}$ -
Short seagull spread cost (per share): ATM put premium − OTM put premium − OTM call premium
-
Long straddle maximum loss = total premium paid
Downside breakeven = strike − total premium
Upside breakeven = strike + total premium -
Put-spread net cost: long-put premium − short-put premium
-
Bull-call-spread maximum gain = difference in strikes − net premium paid
Breakeven = lower strike + net premium paid -
Covered-call gain (stock + short OTM call, stock finishes below strike):
$\text{Gain per share} = $S_T - S_0$ + \text{Call premium received}$ -
Combined position delta (long stock + short option):
$\Delta_{\text{position}} = 1 + \Delta_{\text{option}}$
$for a short put: $1 - (\text{negative put delta}) = 1 + |\Delta_{\text{put}}|$$ -
Bull put spread (short higher-strike put + long lower-strike put) breakeven:
$\text{Breakeven} = \text{Higher strike} - \text{Net premium received}$ -
Short seagull spread net cost (per share):
$\text{Net cost} = \text{ATM put premium} - \text{OTM put premium} - \text{OTM call premium}$ -
Long straddle maximum loss:
$\text{Max loss} = \text{Call premium} + \text{Put premium}$
Upside breakeven $= \text{Strike} + \text{Total premium}$
Downside breakeven $= \text{Strike} - \text{Total premium}$
Swaps, Forwards, and Futures Strategies
-
Basis-point-value hedge ratio (bond futures):
$$BPVHR=\left{\frac{BPV_T-BPV_P}{BPV_{CTD}}\right}\times CF$$
where $$BPV_T=MDUR_T\times0.0001\times MV_P$$ and $$BPV_P=MDUR_P\times0.0001\times MV_P$$ (or given directly). -
Equity-index futures contracts for beta adjustment or equitization:
$$N_f=\left(\frac{\beta_T-\beta_S}{\beta_f}\right)\times\frac{S}{F}$$
where $F=$ futures price $\times$ multiplier. Positive $N_f$ = buy; negative = sell. -
Interest-rate-swap notional to change portfolio modified duration:
$$(MV_P\times MDUR_P)+(N_S\times MDUR_S)=MV_P\times MDUR_T$$
Solve for $N_S$. -
Variance-swap settlement:
Variance notional $=\dfrac{\text{Vega notional}}{2\times\text{Volatility strike}}$
Settlement $=\text{Variance notional}\times(\text{Realized variance}-\text{Variance strike})$
where Variance $=(\text{Volatility})^2$. -
Fed-funds-futures implied rate and rate-change probability:
Implied FFE rate $=100-\text{futures price}$
Probability of a 25 bp move $=\dfrac{\text{Implied FFE}-\text{Current midpoint}}{\text{New midpoint after move}-\text{Current midpoint}}$. -
Equity-swap net payment (cash-settled):
Net cash $=\text{Notional}\times(\text{Floating-rate return}-\text{Equity total return})$. -
CTD selection (invoice price minus dirty price cost):
Amount received $=(\text{Futures settlement}/100)\times CF\times\text{Contract size}$
Bond cost $=(\text{Dirty price}/100)\times\text{Contract size}$.
Lowest (most negative) difference = cheapest-to-deliver.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Interest-rate swap notional to change modified duration:
$NS = \left( \frac{\text{MDUR}_T - \text{MDUR}_P}{\text{MDUR}_S} \right) \times MVP$
where $\text{MDUR}_S$ is typically negative for a pay-fixed swap -
Variance notional: $\text{Variance notional} = \frac{\text{Vega notional}}{2 \times \text{Strike}}$
Value of variance swap at time $t$:
$\text{VarSwap}_t = \text{Variance notional} \times PV_t(T) \times \Bigl{ \frac{t}{T} [\text{RealizedVol}(0,t)]^2 + \frac{T-t}{T} [\text{ImpliedVol}(t,T)]^2 - \text{Strike}^2 \Bigr}$
$PV_t(T) = \frac{1}{1 + r \times (T-t)}$ -
Equity-index futures contracts to change beta:
$N_f = \left( \frac{\beta_T - \beta_S}{\beta_f} \right) \times \left( \frac{S}{F} \right)$
where $F =$ futures price $\times$ multiplier -
Bond futures hedge ratio (BPV method):
$\text{BPV}_{HR} = \left( \frac{\text{BPV}_T - \text{BPV}P}{\text{BPV}{\text{CTD}}} \right) \times \text{Conversion factor}$
$\text{BPV}_T = \text{MDUR}_T \times 0.0001 \times MVP$ -
Fed-funds futures implied average rate:
$\text{Implied rate} = 100 - \text{Futures price}$ -
Probability of a rate hike:
$\dfrac{\text{Implied average rate} - \text{Current midpoint}}{\text{Hike midpoint} - \text{Current midpoint}}$ -
Basis-point-value hedge ratio (duration adjustment):
$\text{BPVHR} = \dfrac{\text{BPV}{\text{target}} - \text{BPV}{\text{current}}}{\text{BPV}_{\text{CTD}}} \times \text{CF}$
$\text{BPV} = \text{Modified duration} \times 0.0001 \times \text{Portfolio value}$
Currency
-
Domestic-currency return on a foreign asset/portfolio:
$$R_{DC}=(1+R_{FC})(1+R_{FX})-1$$
where $R_{FX}$ is the percentage change of the foreign currency against the domestic currency (domestic currency is the price currency in the P/B quote). -
Multi-asset domestic-currency return: #sunday $$R_{DC}=w_1(1+R_{FC,1})(1+R_{FX,1})+w_2(1+R_{FC,2})(1+R_{FX,2})-1$$
-
Domestic-currency return variance approximation:
$$\sigma^2(R_{DC})\approx\sigma^2(R_{FC})+\sigma^2(R_{FX})+2\sigma(R_{FC})\sigma(R_{FX})\rho(R_{FC},R_{FX})$$ -
Minimum-variance hedge ratio:
$$h=\rho(R_{DC};R_{FX})\times\frac{\sigma(R_{DC})}{\sigma(R_{FX})}$$ -
Carry-trade profit (interest differential):
$$\text{Profit}=\text{high-yield currency rate}-\text{low-yield currency rate}$$ -
Bull-call-spread net premium, maximum gain and breakeven:
$$\text{Net premium}= \text{premium paid on long call}-\text{premium received on short call}$$
$$\text{Maximum gain}=(K_{\text{high}}-K_{\text{low}})-\text{net premium}$$
$$\text{Breakeven}=K_{\text{low}}+\text{net premium}$$ -
One-year exchange-rate return from forward:
$$\text{Exchange-rate return}=\frac{\text{Forward rate}-\text{Spot rate}}{\text{Spot rate}}$$ -
All-in forward rate (points quoted per 10 000):
$$\text{All-in forward}=\text{spot}\pm\frac{\text{forward points}}{10,000}$$ -
Discounted cash-settlement amount on early close-out of forward:
$$\text{Present value}=\frac{\text{notional}\times(\text{close-out forward}-\text{original forward})}{1+r\times\frac{t}{360}}$$
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Minimum-variance hedge ratio:
$h = \rho(R_{\text{DC}}; R_{\text{DC/FC}}) \times \left( \frac{\sigma(R_{\text{DC}})}{\sigma(R_{\text{DC/FC}})} \right)$
Hedge position = $h \times$ foreign-currency asset value -
Domestic-currency return: $(1 + R_{\text{FC}})(1 + R_{\text{FX}}) - 1$
-
Forward premium/discount: $\frac{F}{S} - 1$
-
Unhedged domestic-currency return:
$R_{\text{DC}} = (1 + R_{\text{FC}})(1 + R_{\text{FX}}) - 1$
where $R_{\text{FX}} = (S_T - S_0)/S_0$ -
Minimum-variance hedge ratio (currency context, if appearing): $h = \rho \times (\sigma_{\text{DC}} / \sigma_{\text{FX}})$
Portfolio Management $PMP$
Index-Based Strategies
-
Herfindahl–Hirschman Index $HHI$ = sum of the squared constituent weightings
Effective number of stocks $\approx 1/\text{HHI}$ -
Sector (or factor) contribution to return = Sector (or factor) weight $\times$ Sector (or factor) return
-
Active factor-weighting contribution to excess return = $\sum(\text{Portfolio weight}_i - \text{Benchmark weight}_i) \times \text{Return}_i$ (for factors whose weights differ)
-
Number of equity index futures contracts needed = $\dfrac{\text{Target exposure amount}}{\text{Futures contract unit value}}$
Contract unit value = Futures price $\times$ Multiplier
Active Equity Strategies
-
Forward P/E = Price / 1-Year Forward EPS
-
PEG ratio = Forward P/E / Expected EPS growth rate (in percent)
-
Information coefficient (quantitative methods) relates firm returns to model factors using past data
-
Factor-mimicking portfolio $FMP$ is a theoretical long/short, dollar-neutral portfolio with unit exposure to a chosen factor and zero exposure to other factors
**[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
- Sharpe ratio: $SR = \frac{r_p - r_f}{\sigma_p}$ where $r_p$ = portfolio return, $r_f$ = risk-free rate, $\sigma_p$ = portfolio volatility.
-
Cyclically adjusted P/E $CAPE$ = real equity price index / 10-year average real earnings.
-
Maximum position size = Strategy AUM × Position-size limit
-
Average daily volume = Average market capitalization × Average percentage traded each day
-
Daily purchase limit = Average daily volume × Daily volume limit
-
Days to purchase full position = Maximum position size / Daily purchase limit
-
Portfolio active return = $\sum h_{A_i} r_{A_i}$
-
Portfolio active risk (uncorrelated) = $\sqrt{\sum h_{A_i}^2 \sigma_{A_i}^2}$
-
Information ratio = Active return / Active risk
- PEG ratio:
$\text{PEG} = \dfrac{P/E}{\text{Expected EPS growth rate}}$
Active Equity Portfolio Construction
-
Expected active return (fundamental law of active management):
$$E(R_A)=IC\times\sqrt{BR}\times\sigma_{RA}\times TC$$
where $IC$ = information coefficient, $BR$ = breadth (number of independent decisions), $\sigma_{RA}$ = active risk, $TC$ = transfer coefficient. -
Active share:
$$AS=\frac12\sum_{i=1}^N|w_{P,i}-w_{B,i}|$$ -
Active return contribution:
$$R_A=\sum_{i=1}^N(w_{P,i}-w_{B,i})R_i$$ -
Contribution of an asset (or factor) to portfolio variance:
$$CV_i=\sum_j w_i w_j C_{ij}$$ -
Maximum position size under liquidity constraint:
$$\text{Max position}=\text{ADV}\times\text{liquidity limit %}$$
Days to build a maximum position = (AUM × position-size limit) / (ADV × daily-volume limit).
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Contribution of asset $i$ to total portfolio variance: $C_i = \sum_{j=1}^n x_i x_j C_{ij}$ where $x$ = weights and $C_{ij}$ = covariance
-
Portfolio duration = $\sum w_i \times D_i$; solve for target weight
-
Future value of home = Current value $\times (1 + g)^n$
-
Required monthly rate solved from PV, PMT, FV, n; annualized = monthly $\times 12$ or $(1+\text{monthly})^{12}-1$
-
Mortgage net proceeds = Asset value $\times$ LTV
-
Sale-and-leaseback net proceeds = Sale price − Tax on (Sale price − Cost basis)
Liability-Driven and Index-Based Strategies
-
Number of futures contracts to close the duration / money-duration gap:
$N_f = \dfrac{\text{BPV}_L - \text{BPV}_A}{\text{BPV}_f}$
(positive = buy/long; negative = sell/short) -
Futures BPV = $\dfrac{\text{BPV of cheapest-to-deliver}}{\text{Conversion factor of CTD}}$
-
Money duration (dollar duration / BPV) = Modified duration $\times$ Portfolio market value
(or the change in value for a 1 bp yield change)
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Maximum spending rate that preserves real portfolio value:
multiplicative form $spending = \frac{1 + r}{(1 + i)(1 + f)} - 1$;
additive approximation $spending \approx r - i - f$
where $r$ = expected nominal return, $i$ = inflation, $f$ = management fee. -
Dollar duration = Duration × Market value × 0.01.
Rebalancing ratio = Desired dollar duration / New dollar duration.
Cash required = (Rebalancing ratio − 1) × Market value of positions. -
Basis-point value $BPV$ = Money duration × 0.0001.
Number of futures contracts $N_f = \frac{BPV_{liability} - BPV_{portfolio}}{BPV_{futures}}$. -
Money duration = Modified duration × Market value
-
Basis-point value $BPV$ = Money duration × 0.0001
-
Number of futures contracts to close duration gap: $N_f = \frac{\text{BPV}{\text{liability}} - \text{BPV}{\text{portfolio}}}{\text{BPV}_{\text{futures}}}$ $Q206, Q232, Q241$
-
Futures BPV ≈ CTD BPV / Conversion factor $Q232, Q241$
-
PVBP = (Market value × Duration) / 10 000
-
Return requirement (arithmetic) = (Annual subscription expense / Investable base) + Management fees + Inflation components
-
Number of interest-rate futures contracts = $\dfrac{(D_T - D_I) \times P_I}{D_{\text{CTD}} \times P_{\text{CTD}}} \times \text{CF}$
- Swap notional to close duration gap:
$\text{Asset BPV} + \left(\text{NP} \times \dfrac{\text{Swap BPV}}{100}\right) = \text{Liability BPV}$
$\Rightarrow \text{NP} = $\text{Liability BPV} - \text{Asset BPV}$ \times \dfrac{100}{\text{Swap BPV}}$
Yield Curve Strategies
-
Expected total return for a zero-coupon government bond portfolio:
$E(R) \approx %$ Rolldown return $+ E(% \Delta$ Price due to investor’s view of benchmark yield$) + E(% \Delta$ Price due to investor’s view of currency value changes$)$ -
Rolldown return:
$\text{Rolldown return} = \dfrac{PV_1 - PV_0}{PV_0}$ -
Price change due to yield view:
$E(% \Delta$ Price due to investor’s view of benchmark yield$) = $-\text{Duration} \times \Delta \text{Yield}$ + $\bigl[0.5 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta \text{Yield})^2\bigr]$ -
Approximate percentage change in full portfolio value:
$%\Delta PV_{\text{Full}} \approx -(\text{ModDur} \times \Delta \text{Yield}) + \bigl[\tfrac12 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta \text{Yield})^2\bigr]$ -
Butterfly spread:
$\text{Butterfly spread} = -(\text{short-term yield}) + $2 \times \text{medium-term yield}$ - (\text{long-term yield})$ -
Domestic-currency return on foreign bond:
$R_{\text{DC}} = (1 + R_{\text{FC}})(1 + R_{\text{FX}}) - 1$ -
Key-rate duration contribution:
$\text{Key rate duration} = \text{Modified duration} \times \dfrac{\text{bond position}}{\text{portfolio position}}$
Sum of key-rate durations equals effective portfolio duration.
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Fixed-income expected return ≈ Yield income + Rolldown return + E(Δ price from yield/spread views) − E(credit losses) + E(currency gains/losses).
Yield income = Annual coupon / Current price.
Rolldown return = (Price at horizon − Beginning price) / Beginning price. -
Expected fixed-income return: $E(R) \approx$ Yield income + Rolldown return + $E(\Delta\text{price})$ − $E(\text{credit losses})$ + $E(\text{currency})$
-
Yield income = Annual coupon / Current bond price $Q208, Q220, Q224, Q240$
-
Rolldown return = (Price at horizon − Beginning price) / Beginning price $Q208, Q220, Q224, Q240$
-
Butterfly spread = −(Short-term yield) + (2 × Medium-term yield) − Long-term yield
-
Price-change approximation: $-\text{MD} \times \Delta y + 0.5 \times \text{Convexity} \times (\Delta y)^2$
-
Foreign-bond duration contribution = Country beta × Local-currency duration
-
Unhedged foreign-bond return $\approx r_l + e$ where $e = (S_{t+1}-S_t)/S_t$
-
Hedged foreign-bond return $\approx r_l + (i_d - i_f)$ or $i_d + (r_l - i_f)$
[MOCK: _MOCK_PMP_2_1.md]
- Key-rate relative performance approximation:
$\Delta\text{Relative value} \approx $\text{KR}{port} - \text{KR}{bench}$ \times \Delta y$
Fixed-Income Active Management: Credit Strategies
$$ $\text{YTM}(i) = \text{YTM(Treasury)} + \text{Yield Spread}(i)$ $$
Expected excess return / excess spread (relative value analysis)
EXR ≈ (s × t) − (Δs × SD) − (t × p × L)
or
Expected excess spread ≈ Spread₀ − (EffSpreadDur × ΔSpread) − (POD × LGD)
where s/Spread₀ = credit spread (Z-spread or OAS), t = holding period (years), SD/EffSpreadDur = spread duration, Δs/ΔSpread = expected change in spread, p/POD = probability of default, L/LGD = loss severity/given default.
Active share
Active share = ½ × Σ |w_{portfolio,i} − w_{benchmark,i}| for i = 1 to N
Fundamental law of active management
E(R_A) = IC × √BR × σ_RA × TC
where IC = information coefficient, BR = breadth (# independent investment decisions/year), σ_RA = active risk (tracking error), TC = transfer coefficient.
Approximate bond price change
ΔP/P ≈ −MD × Δy or −EffSpreadDur × Δs
G-spread
G-spread = bond YTM − linearly interpolated on-the-run government YTM (weights based on maturity distance to bracketing gov bonds)
I-spread
I-spread = bond YTM − linearly interpolated swap rate (swap rate = gov YTM + swap spread for same tenor)
Asset swap spread $ASW$
ASW ≈ bond coupon − interpolated swap rate (same maturity)
CDS upfront payment / initial price
Upfront (% notional) ≈ EffSpreadDur_CDS × (market spread − standard coupon)
CDS price (per 100 notional) ≈ 100 − upfront
VaR / tail risk scaling
Horizon yield change (z-score) ≈ daily yield volatility × z × √trading days
Position loss ≈ notional × (price/100) × (−MD × Δy)
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
-
Expected excess return (credit): $$\text{EXR} \approx s \times t - \Delta s \times \text{SD} - (t \times p \times L)$$ where $s$ = spread, $t$ = horizon, SD = spread duration, $p$ = default probability, $L$ = loss severity $Q211, Q226, Q236$
-
Spread duration ≈ DTS / OAS
-
Expected annual credit loss = Probability of default × Loss severity
-
Breakeven spread change (quarterly) = Quarterly yield advantage / Duration
-
Probability of default approximation:
$\text{POD} = \dfrac{\text{Spread}}{\text{LGD}},\quad \text{LGD} = 1 - \text{RR}$ -
Credit spread from POD:
$\text{Credit spread} = \text{POD} \times \text{LGD}$ -
CDS P&L approximation (protection):
$\text{P&L} \approx \text{Notional} \times \Delta\text{Spread} \times \text{Effective spread duration}$
(sign flips for short protection) -
Duration-matching notional for CDS:
$\text{Notional}{5y} = \dfrac{\text{EffSpreadDur}{10y}}{\text{EffSpreadDur}{5y}} \times \text{Notional}{10y}$ -
Expected excess spread return:
$$E[\text{ExcessSpread}] = \text{Spread}_0 - \text{EffSpreadDur} \times \Delta\text{Spread} - (\text{POD} \times \text{LGD})$$
Trade Strategies and Execution
-
Delay cost = Number of shares executed $\times$ (Arrival price – Decision price)
(signs adjust for sell orders) -
Arrival cost (bps) = Side $\times$ $\dfrac{\text{Average price} - \text{Arrival price}}{\text{Arrival price}} \times 10{,}000$
where Side = $+1$ for buy, $-1$ for sell -
Implementation shortfall $IS$ = Execution cost + Opportunity cost + Fees
Execution cost = $\sum s_j p_j - \sum s_j p_d$
Opportunity cost = $(S - \sum s_j)(p_n - p_d)$ -
Expanded implementation shortfall = Delay cost + Trading cost + Opportunity cost + Fees
Trading cost = $\sum s_j p_j - $\sum s_j$ p_0$
where $p_0$ = arrival price -
Market-adjusted cost (bps) = Arrival cost (bps) – $\beta \times$ Index cost (bps)
Index cost (bps) = Side $\times$ $\dfrac{\text{Index VWAP} - \text{Index arrival price}}{\text{Index arrival price}} \times 10{,}000$ -
VWAP cost (bps) = Side $\times$ $\dfrac{P - \text{VWAP}}{\text{VWAP}} \times 10{,}000$
Liquidity aggregation (bottom-up): $$ \text{Liquid} = \sum $w_i \times %\text{Liquid}_i$ $$ $$ \text{Illiquid} = \sum $w_i \times %\text{Illiquid}_i$ $$ Example: $$ \text{Liquid} = $1% \times 100%$ + $24% \times 100%$ + $39% \times 50%$ = 44.5% $$ $$ \text{Illiquid} = $21% \times 100%$ + $15% \times 50%$ = 28.5% $$
Average composite fee (for net-of-fees comparison): $$ \frac{(0.0100 \times 5) + [0.0060 \times (60 - 5)]}{60} = 0.0063\ $0.63%$ $$
Levered cost of obtaining leverage (3× factor = 66.67% borrowed): $$ \frac{\text{Notional} \times 0.6667 \times \text{Borrowing rate}}{\text{Notional}} $$ ETF borrowing rate = 3-month MRR + 35 bps = 2.15%; futures opportunity cost = 3-month MRR = 1.80%.
Total levered cost = unlevered cost + additional leverage cost.
Geometric smoothing spending rule: $$ \text{Spending}t = $60% \times \text{Spending}{t-1}$ + [40% \times (5% \times MV_{t-1})] $$
[FORMULAS IN MOCKS]
- Implementation shortfall components: #sunday
$\text{Execution cost} = \sum S_j P_j - \sum S_j P_d$
$\text{Opportunity cost} = (S - \sum S_j)(P_n - P_d)$
$\text{Fixed fees} = \text{Shares traded} \times \text{fee per share}$
$\text{IS} = \text{Execution cost} + \text{Opportunity cost} + \text{Fixed fees}$
$\text{IS (bps)} = \dfrac{\text{IS ($)}}{\text{Total shares} \times P_d} \times 10{,}000$